How do I calculate the after-tax cost of debt, and why does the tax shield matter for WACC?
I'm working through WACC calculations for CFA Level I and I keep getting confused about the cost of debt. Do I use the coupon rate or the yield to maturity? And why do we multiply by (1 - tax rate)? A step-by-step example with real numbers would be incredibly helpful.
The after-tax cost of debt represents the effective interest rate a company pays on its borrowings after accounting for the tax deductibility of interest expense. It is a key input to the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC).
Formula:
r_d(after-tax) = YTM × (1 - t)
Where:
- YTM = yield to maturity on the company's existing debt (or new debt issuance)
- t = marginal corporate tax rate
Why YTM, Not the Coupon Rate?
The coupon rate is the contractual interest rate set at issuance. The YTM reflects the current market rate — what investors actually require to hold the bond today. Since WACC uses market-based costs, YTM is the correct input.
If a bond was issued at 5% coupon but now trades at a price where YTM = 6.5%, the company's current cost of debt is 6.5%, not 5%.
Why the Tax Shield?
Interest expense is tax-deductible for most companies. If a firm pays $1 million in interest at a 25% tax rate, the actual cash cost is only $750,000 because the interest reduces taxable income, saving $250,000 in taxes. This tax shield lowers the effective cost of debt.
Worked Example — Pendleton Industries
Pendleton Industries has the following capital structure:
| Component | Market Value | Weight |
|---|---|---|
| Equity | $600M | 60% |
| Debt | $400M | 40% |
Debt details:
- Outstanding bonds: $1,000 par, 4.5% coupon, 8 years to maturity
- Current bond price: $962
- Marginal tax rate: 21%
Step 1 — Find YTM:
Using a financial calculator or approximation:
- PV = -962, FV = 1000, PMT = 45, N = 8
- YTM ≈ 5.12%
Step 2 — Apply Tax Shield:
r_d(after-tax) = 5.12% × (1 - 0.21) = 5.12% × 0.79 = 4.04%
Step 3 — Plug into WACC:
If cost of equity = 11.3%:
WACC = (0.60 × 11.3%) + (0.40 × 4.04%)
WACC = 6.78% + 1.62% = 8.40%
Common Mistakes:
- Using the coupon rate instead of YTM — the coupon rate is historical, not current
- Forgetting to apply the tax adjustment — always use after-tax cost in WACC
- Using the book value of debt instead of market value for weights
- Applying the tax shield to equity — only debt interest is tax-deductible (in most jurisdictions)
Exam Tip: If a question gives you a bond price and coupon, calculate YTM first, then apply the tax adjustment. If the question directly gives you the "cost of debt" or YTM, just multiply by (1 - t). Never forget the tax shield.
Explore more corporate finance problems in our CFA Level I materials.
Master Level I with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
How do I map a CFA Ethics vignette to the right standard?
When does a duty to clients override pressure from an employer?
Do conflicts have to be disclosed before making a recommendation?
Why do CFA Ethics answers focus so much on the action taken?
What does a high-water mark actually do in a hedge fund fee calculation?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.