What are the key differences between IFRS and US GAAP for asset impairment testing?
I keep mixing up the impairment rules under IFRS and GAAP for CFA Level I. I know one allows reversal and one doesn't, but I'm also confused about the two-step test under GAAP vs. the single-step under IFRS. Can someone clarify the process and give an example?
Asset impairment is one of the most tested IFRS vs. GAAP comparison topics on the CFA Level I exam. The differences are significant.
IFRS (IAS 36) — One-Step Test:
- If indicators of impairment exist, compare carrying value to the recoverable amount (higher of fair value less costs of disposal and value in use).
- If carrying value > recoverable amount, write down to recoverable amount.
- Reversals are permitted (except for goodwill) up to the original carrying amount net of depreciation.
US GAAP (ASC 360) — Two-Step Test:
- Recoverability test: Compare carrying value to undiscounted future cash flows. If CV < undiscounted CFs, stop — no impairment.
- Measurement step: If CV > undiscounted CFs, write down to fair value.
- No reversal permitted — once written down, the new lower value becomes the cost basis.
Example: Dunmore Energy owns a power plant with a carrying value of $50 million.
- Expected undiscounted cash flows: $48 million
- Fair value: $38 million
- Value in use (discounted CFs): $42 million
Under US GAAP: Step 1 fails (CV $50M > undiscounted $48M), so proceed to Step 2. Write down to fair value $38M. Impairment loss = $12 million. No future reversal.
Under IFRS: Recoverable amount = higher of fair value ($38M) and value in use ($42M) = $42M. CV $50M > $42M, so impairment loss = $8 million. If conditions improve next year, the impairment can be reversed.
Why the difference matters: US GAAP's undiscounted cash flow screen means some assets pass Step 1 even when their economic value (fair value) is below carrying value. IFRS catches those cases because it uses discounted amounts.
Practice impairment scenarios in our CFA Level I question bank.
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