How do upstream and downstream transactions affect equity method accounting?
I understand the basic equity method, but I'm completely lost when it comes to intercompany transactions. What's the difference between upstream and downstream, and how do we eliminate the unrealized profit? A worked example would really help.
This is a tricky area that the CFA Level II exam loves to test. Let me break it down:
Definitions:
- Downstream transaction: The investor sells goods/services TO the investee (associate)
- Upstream transaction: The investee (associate) sells goods/services TO the investor
In both cases, any unrealized profit from the transaction must be eliminated proportionally.
Worked Example — Downstream:
Riverton Manufacturing (investor, 40% stake) sells inventory costing $200,000 to its associate, Crestview Components, for $300,000. At year-end, Crestview still holds 60% of this inventory unsold.
- Total gross profit on sale = $300,000 - $200,000 = $100,000
- Unrealized portion = $100,000 x 60% = $60,000 (still in Crestview's inventory)
- Investor's share to eliminate = $60,000 x 40% = $24,000
Riverton reduces its equity income by $24,000 and reduces the investment account by the same amount.
Worked Example — Upstream:
Crestview Components sells inventory costing $150,000 to Riverton for $225,000. At year-end, Riverton has sold 70% of these goods to third parties.
- Total gross profit = $225,000 - $150,000 = $75,000
- Unrealized portion = $75,000 x 30% = $22,500
- Investor's share to eliminate = $22,500 x 40% = $9,000
Key distinction for the exam:
- Under IFRS, the treatment is the same for both upstream and downstream — eliminate the investor's proportionate share.
- Under US GAAP, downstream transactions require the investor to eliminate 100% of the unrealized profit (not just its proportionate share), since the investor controlled the sale.
| Downstream (IFRS) | Downstream (US GAAP) | Upstream (Both) | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Elimination | Investor's % share | 100% of unrealized profit | Investor's % share |
This GAAP vs. IFRS difference is a high-probability exam question. Practice both scenarios in our CFA Level II Financial Reporting module.
Master Level II with our CFA Course
107 lessons · 200+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
How do I map a CFA Ethics vignette to the right standard?
When does a duty to clients override pressure from an employer?
Do conflicts have to be disclosed before making a recommendation?
Why do CFA Ethics answers focus so much on the action taken?
What does a high-water mark actually do in a hedge fund fee calculation?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.