Why is time-scaling Cornish-Fisher VaR more delicate than scaling normal VaR?
I know the square-root-of-time rule for volatility under strong assumptions, but Cornish-Fisher VaR includes skewness and excess kurtosis. That makes me unsure whether I can just scale the final number or need to scale the inputs differently.
Unlock with Scholar — $19/month
Get full access to all Q&A answers, practice question explanations, and progress tracking.
No credit card required for free trial
Master Part I with our FRM Course
64 lessons · 120+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
Why is DV01 so much smaller than dollar duration if both are supposed to measure rate risk?
When should I stop using modified duration and switch to effective duration?
How should I think about the relationship between Macaulay duration and modified duration instead of memorizing two separate definitions?
Why do hedge calculations often use dollar duration or DV01 instead of just modified duration?
When should I prefer historical simulation VaR over delta-normal VaR?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.