How does the quantitative goodwill impairment test work under IFRS versus US GAAP, and what happens to the impairment loss?
I keep mixing up the IFRS and GAAP approaches to goodwill impairment. Under IFRS, goodwill is allocated to CGUs and tested indirectly, while GAAP uses reporting units directly. Can someone walk me through the quantitative mechanics of each and explain why the loss amounts can differ for the same acquisition?
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