What is Ricardian equivalence, and why does it predict that debt-financed government spending has no stimulative effect — and does this hold in practice?
I'm studying CFA Level II economics and Ricardian equivalence seems counterintuitive. The theory says it doesn't matter whether the government finances spending through taxes or borrowing. But governments clearly behave as if deficits stimulate demand. What are the key assumptions that make Ricardian equivalence break down in reality?
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