How does securitization create moral hazard, and what risk retention rules try to fix it?
I'm studying securitization risk for FRM Part II. The 2008 crisis showed that securitization created perverse incentives — originators didn't care about loan quality because they sold the risk. What regulations have been put in place, and do they actually work?
Securitization separates the entity that originates loans from the entity that bears the credit risk. This separation creates classic moral hazard — the originator has less incentive to maintain lending standards if they can offload the risk.
The Moral Hazard Chain:
- Originate-to-distribute: Banks originate mortgages specifically to securitize them, not to hold them. No 'skin in the game' means less careful underwriting.
- Information asymmetry: The originator knows more about loan quality than investors. They can cherry-pick bad loans for securitization.
- Servicer conflicts: The servicer (often the originator) may not maximize recoveries if they don't bear the loss.
- Rating agency failures: Agencies were paid by issuers and had incentives to assign favorable ratings.
Pre-Crisis Example — Foxworth Mortgage Corp:
- Originated $2B in mortgages annually
- Securitized 95% within 90 days
- Relaxed lending standards progressively: no-doc loans, stated-income, 100% LTV
- Result: 30%+ default rates on 2006-2007 vintages
Post-Crisis Risk Retention Rules:
US (Dodd-Frank Section 941):
- Securitizers must retain at least 5% of the credit risk
- Can be horizontal (first-loss equity), vertical (5% of each tranche), or L-shaped (combination)
- QRM (Qualified Residential Mortgage) exemption for highest-quality mortgages
EU (CRR Article 405):
- Similar 5% retention requirement
- Investor due diligence obligations — investors must verify the originator's retention
Basel III:
- Higher capital charges for securitization exposures
- SEC-IRBA (Internal Ratings-Based Approach for Securitization) with more conservative calibration
- STC (Simple, Transparent, Comparable) criteria for preferential treatment
Do They Work?
| Aspect | Improvement | Remaining Concern |
|---|---|---|
| Origination quality | Better underwriting standards | 5% may be insufficient skin-in-game |
| Transparency | Enhanced disclosure requirements | Complex structures still opaque |
| Rating quality | Less conflicted process | Still issuer-paid model |
| Systemic risk | Higher capital buffers | Shadow banking workarounds |
FRM Key Points:
- Risk retention aligns interests but doesn't eliminate them — 5% retention still means 95% is transferred
- 'Skin in the game' works best for horizontal retention (first-loss), not vertical (5% of each tranche)
- Regulatory arbitrage: some risk migrates to less-regulated sectors (CLO managers, insurance)
- The exam tests your understanding of HOW retention structures work, not just that they exist
Study securitization regulation in our FRM Part II course.
Master Part II with our FRM Course
64 lessons · 120+ hours· Expert instruction
Related Questions
Why is DV01 so much smaller than dollar duration if both are supposed to measure rate risk?
When should I stop using modified duration and switch to effective duration?
How should I think about the relationship between Macaulay duration and modified duration instead of memorizing two separate definitions?
Why do hedge calculations often use dollar duration or DV01 instead of just modified duration?
When should I prefer historical simulation VaR over delta-normal VaR?
Join the Discussion
Ask questions and get expert answers.