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FRM Part II Updated

Showing 41-60 of 414 FRM Part II questionsBrowse complete index →
CC
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How do banks ensure operational continuity during resolution — what happens to IT systems, payment access, and shared services?

Operational continuity in resolution (OCIR) ensures that the critical functions of a bank — payments, settlements, custody, lending — continue operating without interruption during...

CFA_Candidate_2026·2026-04-13·68
CC
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How does depositor preference work in bank resolution, and why does it matter for bail-in creditors?

Depositor preference is a legal principle that gives depositors — both insured and uninsured — seniority over other unsecured creditors in the event of a bank's liquidation or reso...

CFA_Candidate_2026·2026-04-13·178
CC
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What is a bridge institution and when do resolution authorities use it instead of bail-in?

A bridge institution is a temporary entity created by the resolution authority to take over the critical functions of a failing bank while the original entity is wound down. It ser...

CFA_Candidate_2026·2026-04-13·152
CC
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How does bail-in actually work mechanically — what is the sequence of write-downs and conversions?

Bail-in is the process by which a resolution authority writes down or converts a failing bank's liabilities into equity to absorb losses and recapitalize the institution. The execu...

CFA_Candidate_2026·2026-04-13·181
CC
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What are recovery indicators in a resolution plan, and how do they differ from normal risk limits?

Recovery indicators are pre-defined quantitative and qualitative metrics embedded in a firm's recovery plan that signal deteriorating financial health and trigger escalation toward...

CFA_Candidate_2026·2026-04-13·61
CA
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How do acute and chronic physical climate risks differ in their financial impact pathways?

Acute physical climate risks are event-driven (hurricanes, wildfires) causing sudden concentrated damage, while chronic risks are trend-driven (sea level rise, warming) causing gradual asset impairment. Their financial transmission pathways differ fundamentally in timing, insurability, and modeling approaches.

ClimateRisk_Anja·2026-04-12·127
KR
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How should banks set Key Risk Indicator (KRI) thresholds, and what makes a KRI actionable versus merely informational?

Effective KRIs are leading, measurable, and actionable metrics with statistically calibrated green/amber/red thresholds. Threshold setting uses historical distributions, and every breach must trigger a defined escalation protocol with clear ownership and response timelines.

KRIDashboard_Rex·2026-04-12·98
ST
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How do banks use scenario analysis to estimate operational risk severity, and what role do expert judgment workshops play?

Scenario analysis uses structured expert workshops with modified Delphi methods to estimate the frequency and severity of extreme operational risk events. Debiasing techniques counter anchoring, availability bias, and groupthink to produce calibrated severity distributions for stress testing and risk appetite.

ScenarioMod_Theo·2026-04-12·91
CP
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What is the ILM coefficient, and how does national discretion on the ILM affect cross-border capital comparability?

The ILM coefficient determines whether internal loss data affects capital. National supervisors can set ILM = 1 (eliminating loss sensitivity), floor it at 1.0 (only allowing surcharges), or use the full formula. This discretion creates cross-border inconsistency for international banks.

CrossBorder_Penn·2026-04-12·87
BS
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What are the three components of the Business Indicator (BI), and how do absolute value adjustments prevent manipulation?

The Business Indicator comprises three sub-indicators capturing intermediation, services, and financial activities. Absolute values and max functions in the formulas prevent banks from reducing their operational risk proxy through offsetting positions or deliberate netting.

BIAnalyst_Soren·2026-04-12·83
OF
frmPart IIExpert Verified

Why is DVA (Debit Valuation Adjustment) controversial, and what are the main arguments for and against including own credit risk in derivatives valuation?

DVA is controversial because it creates accounting profits when a firm's creditworthiness deteriorates. While accounting standards require it for bilateral consistency, regulators exclude it from capital because the gains are unrealizable and create perverse incentives.

OwnCreditRisk_Felix·2026-04-12·172
BH
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How does bilateral CVA incorporate both parties' default risk, and what role does netting play in the calculation?

Bilateral CVA equals unilateral CVA minus DVA, accounting for both counterparties' default risk. Netting agreements dramatically reduce exposures by offsetting positive and negative MtM positions, lowering both CVA and DVA calculations.

BilatRisk_Hannah·2026-04-12·131
RA
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What is right-way risk, and how does beneficial correlation between exposure and counterparty credit quality reduce CVA?

Right-way risk occurs when derivative exposure decreases as the counterparty's credit deteriorates. A classic example is a gold forward with a gold miner — exposure is highest when gold prices rise, which is exactly when the miner is financially strongest.

RWR_Analytics_Olga·2026-04-12·76
RE
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What makes a risk factor non-modellable under FRTB, and how are NMRFs capitalized separately?

Under FRTB, risk factors without at least 24 annual price observations (with no gap exceeding one month) are classified as non-modellable. NMRFs receive separate stressed scenario capital charges aggregated with limited diversification, creating strong incentives to source observable data.

RiskData_Elara·2026-04-12·109
SY
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How does ISDA SIMM calculate initial margin, and what are the risk sensitivity buckets?

ISDA SIMM calculates initial margin by computing delta, vega, and curvature sensitivities across six risk classes, assigning them to currency or sector buckets, applying risk weights, and aggregating using prescribed intra-bucket and inter-bucket correlations.

SIMMCalc_Yuki·2026-04-12·95
MH
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What is the margin period of risk, and how does it affect collateral haircuts and exposure calculations?

The margin period of risk is the assumed duration between a counterparty's last margin payment and full portfolio closeout after default. It scales potential future exposure and collateral haircuts, with regulatory floors of 5 days for cleared trades and 10-20 days for bilateral positions.

MarginOps_Hana·2026-04-12·78
SV
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How do you decompose a swap spread into its credit, liquidity, and supply-demand components?

Swap spreads decompose into credit, liquidity, supply/demand, and regulatory components. Negative swap spreads at the long end arise from corporate hedging demand pushing swap rates down, Treasury supply glut pushing yields up, and post-crisis balance sheet constraints limiting dealer arbitrage.

SwapDesk_Vasilis·2026-04-12·94
TK
frmPart IIExpert Verified

How does climate transition risk create stranded assets, and how should financial institutions model this exposure?

Stranded assets are carbon-intensive resources that lose value due to policy, technology, or market shifts during climate transition. Financial institutions face credit risk from borrower write-downs and equity risk from valuation declines, quantified through carbon budget analysis and scenario-based stress testing.

TransitionWatch_Kai·2026-04-11·143
ME
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What is MVA (Margin Valuation Adjustment), and how do dealers optimize margin costs across their portfolios?

MVA quantifies the lifetime funding cost of initial margin posted for derivatives. As UMR expanded IM requirements, MVA has become a major cost component. Dealers optimize through portfolio compression, SIMM netting, clearing election, and collateral strategies.

MarginOpt_Ethan·2026-04-11·104
FP
frmPart IIExpert Verified

What is FVA (Funding Valuation Adjustment), and why is there a heated academic debate about whether it should exist?

FVA reflects the cost of funding uncollateralized derivative positions above the risk-free rate. Practitioners universally charge it, but academics debate its theoretical validity, with some arguing it double-counts DVA or violates the principle that valuation should be independent of the valuer's funding costs.

FundingDesk_Priya·2026-04-11·189

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